I'm a very applied market researcher, and we routinely treat 1-to-4 ratings scales (or 1-5, 1-6, 1-7, 1-10, 0-10 or anthing else) as continuous. No one even thinks twice about it.
Even by those standards, this seems a bit of a stretch. The key implied assumption is that solid differs from leaning as much as leaning does from tossup. Maybe, but who knows? It would depend a lot on how those terms were defined in the first place. And "differs as much" is defined on what scale (probability of winning? percentage lead in polls? etc?)?
But, if you look at how the article is actually using it, I don't see a real problem. He's not using the SDs to draw conclusions, or directly interpreting them, but only using them to order the table in a helpful way. Had he omitted the SDs from the table and not mentioned them, the table would still be in a helpful order and we might not even be wondering how that order was arrived at.
-------------------------------------------
David Lyon
Aurora Market Modeling
-------------------------------------------