Dear Colleagues,
I have always thought of a prevalence estimate, such as that obtained from a cross-sectional study that gathers data over a period of time, is a type of relative frequency and ,as such, can be regarded as a probability.
In teaching, I need to introduce some medical students to probability in epidemiology and have come across material that indicates that prevalence is NOT a probability. I think this may apply if we a speaking prevalence estimated as the proportion of individuals in a population that has disease at a single point in time (point) – such as mid-year prevalence estimate.
Is there "room" for accepting both views - point prevalence is not a probability but period prevalence is - or is it that any prevalence estimate, regardless of how obtained is NOT a probability? I would like your feedback.
Regards
Novie
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Novie Younger-Coleman PhD
Statistician/Senior Lecturer
Caribbean Institute for Health Research
(formerly Tropical Medicine Research Institute)
University of the West Indies
Kingston 7
Jamaica
Tel: 876 977 0746 or 927 2471 ext 227
Fax: 876 927 2984
e-mail: novie.younger@uwimona.edu.jm
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THEME: Statistics for Success: Ethics, Data Security and Quality
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