oh dang; my mistake. 0log(0)=0, not 1.
theta^x in the likelihood is 1 if x=0. Then log(1)=0.
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Kenneth Burnham
Colorado State University
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Original Message:
Sent: 03-26-2017 16:50
From: Rudy Gideon
Subject: GLM residual deviance formula for logistic model binomial link
"Need help with deviance calculation of a Logistic Model with binomial data. Model estimates are computed by a new method and I want to compare GLM using R to my results. I have tails of the data that include no successes and all successes for about 12 points. The Deviance function given in books does not work for 0 successes (0log0 =?) nor for m successes in m trails, m>1, (m-m)* log(m-m) =?. The Deviance formula gives a result without these tails on my method that is similar to R results (again without the tails). The degrees of freedom from R indicate all data is being used. So what does R do with these tail points in its calculation of Deviance? I need the exact formula."
I have run the GLM model using R on three data sets and have the resulting residual deviances. I need my estimates evaluated through the deviance function for comparison. The GLM results are not quite as good as my method using my minimization technique. It is not a complicated process.
Rudy Gideon
Retired Professor
University of Montana
Missoula, MT
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